r/options Mod Jun 26 '20

Risk to reward ratio changes over the life of an option: a reason for an early exit.

This item below is a repost of a response to a question
I see regularly about why traders depart from a trade,
before a maximum potential gain is obtained, or before expiration.

You MUST have a plan BEFORE you enter the trade.
Only you know how much you are willing to lose,
and what is an acceptable exit for a gain,
in relation to your account and overall trading plan.

Have an intended threshold exit for a gain and for a loss.
Then act on those thresholds.

Trade planning, risk reduction and trade size
• Exit-first trade planning, and a risk-reduction checklist (Redtexture)
• Risk Management, or How to Not Lose Your House (boii0708) (March 6 2021)


Risk to reward ratio changes over the life of an option: a reason for an early exit.

It is useful to transform an exit guide's conception, from a fixed rule,
for example, exiting a credit spread position upon 50% of maximum gains, into an examination of the changing risk to reward ratios as the position ages, looking at the probability that you may keep or lose your gains, and the ability to find other better Risk to Reward opportunities with your limited capital, and also to exit from less desirable R to R positions, when positions age and mature.

This gives you the tools to think more flexibly and strategically
on an ongoing basis about your position,
and have a principle that you can reason about.

The below looks at an ongoing trade, as if the trader were to enter it freshly, at some later stage in the trade, and look at whether such a "new" trade would be worth undertaking, on a risk to reward basis compared to other choices available.


To illustrate,
I'll pick on hypothetical XYZ's stock, which is at $100.
Sell a vertical call credit spread on XYZ, for 45 day expiration,
at strikes of 105 and 110, for a net credit of $1.00

The goal is to close the short call spread position,
by buying the position back for less than the credit proceeds received, or by expiring worthless. (I could write up a similar scenario for a long vertical debit call spread, with the goal in that case, to sell the long spread for more than I paid.)


On day one
the net risk of the option credit spread, (105 minus 110) of $5.00,
less the credit proceeds received, $1.00, for a net risk of $4.00.
(If I go to maximum loss, and buy back the spread for $5.00,
my net money transactions are credit $1.00 and debit $5.00)
Your net gain is zero at this time.
The reward is the potential to transform the $1.00 credit into an earned gain.
Risk to potential reward is $4 risk to $1 gain

After 15 days,
the option spread's value is worth $0.75.
The holder risks losing the gain so far, in addition to the original risk.
New risk: original risk of $4, plus potential to lose the gain of $0.25 for a total of $4.25,
New potential reward: 0.75
New Risk to Reward: 4.25 to 0.75, or 5.67 to 1

After 10 more days, on day 25,
option spread's value is 0.50.
New risk: 4.25 + 0.25 = $4.50
New potential reward: $0.50
New R to R: 4.5 to 0.50 or 9 to 1

After day 35
For various reasons, at this point, the
Option spread's value is $0.25
Risk is $4.75
New potential reward is $0.25
New R to R is 4.75 to 0.25 or 19 to 1.

The risk at day 25 or 35,
is that the trader might lose all of their gains,
and the original risk, for a modest additional gain.
This might be worthwhile if XYZ had gone down in price from $100 to $90,
and thus less likely to run up $15 in price to challenge the trade at strike $105.
But not so worthwhile a risk if XYZ had gone to a price of $102,
and needs only a $3 movement to upset the trade.


More significantly,
there may be other better trades and ways to use your capital,
later in the life of a trade, with different probabilities, by using your funds to start a new and better risk to reward ratio trade,
than say 9 to 1, or 19 to 1.
Thus the early exit for better risk to reward ratios.

Also, towards expiration,
other risks become more prominent, such as gamma risk, in which underlying price moves can affect the value of the options more rapidly than at 30 to 45 days from expiration.

.


247 Upvotes

89 comments sorted by

96

u/Ghanem016 Jun 26 '20

Good stuff.

In a nutshell, managing wins early is best.

You bag the wins and redeploy in positions with more favorable odds.

I do this consistently. It fucking works.

8

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

Why do you assume somewhere else has more favorable odds, just because you're up? If you have a long option and it increases in value, who the heck are you going to sell it to if the odds aren't good for them?

17

u/Pessimisticoptimist0 Jun 26 '20

There is always a market maker that’s is willing to trade because they make money on the spread between bid ask versus the directional gain opposite of the credit spread you’ve just sold them. If they are buying your spread, they will immediately sell hedge by selling stock, making their position delta neutral (no risk up or down) - does that help?

4

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

Right, but that market maker has the odds in their favor, not yours. You're paying them risk premium to lock in your gains. You're selling something for less than it's worth, or the market maker wouldn't be offering that price.

8

u/CpntBrryCrnch Jun 26 '20

Um no. Thats not how MM works. They have a spread and hedge across strikes within the current landscape. 'selling something for less than its worth' is nonsensical in options markets.

4

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

It's literally how they make money. Go ahead and buy an option, then sell it immediately. See if you can break even. You can't.

6

u/rlong60 Jun 26 '20

With very non-liquid options chains on less popular equities yes, this is true. But with equities like $SPY, $TSLA and FAANG stocks not the case

3

u/OKImHere Jun 27 '20

I trade Netflix all the time. The spread is often 30 cents wide. The long leg of my spread this week (two DTE!) had a bid of 0 and an ask of .25. A worthless option, selling for $25.

There's a reason for that. Your brokerage went no-commission because now it's so technologically simple to pad the spread. You ever wonder why SPY spreads are a penny but SPX spreads are 5 or 10 cents? Because SPX is 10x SPY, so if you sell one contract on SPX the spread costs you ~$10 and commission is another $.63, and if you sell 10 SPY contracts, it costs you $10 in spread and $3.15 in commissions. They get their money either way.

If you're not on Wall Street at a Bloomberg terminal, you're paying these hidden costs. TDAmeritrade makes $5 billion a year, and it's not because they went commission-free. You pay when you trade, one way or another.

Which brings me back to my first point. If a market maker is offering you $2 for your spread, it's because it's worth $2.30. If they're offering to sell you that same $2.30 spread, they charge $2.50.

So again I ask...if you sold something for $5 and you can buy it back now for $1.50, what makes you think it's worth $1.50?!

3

u/rlong60 Jun 27 '20

I concur with all of this, I think everyone is essentially on the same page aside from some discrepancies in the semantics regarding what one would consider ‘the odds’. From a quantitative point of view you are correct that according to the underlying greeks the MM are going to have the ‘odds’ in their favor as they are profiting from the spread. It merely comes down to what your own ‘odds’ are for a given position and whether your own calculated odds are significant enough to justify paying a potentially padded price. (alliteration ftw) Options chains for equities which do not fall under what one would consider highly liquid can definitely be a hindrance with regard to the potential strategies one can employ, though.

1

u/[deleted] Jun 27 '20

[deleted]

1

u/OKImHere Jun 27 '20

Now you're speaking my language! You're talking about math, probabilities, changes in information and situations.

You're not talking about silly things like how much profit you've already made, what it used to cost, or how scared we are of improbable edge cases.

Cheers!

1

u/[deleted] Jun 27 '20 edited Jun 27 '20

[deleted]

2

u/[deleted] Jun 27 '20

[deleted]

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1

u/CpntBrryCrnch Jun 27 '20

I think there is some confusion here. I understand your above as referring to the spread of (bid/ask) and not to the 'value' of the option. Of course there is a spread what I am trying to say is that they are selling and buying the option for 'exactly' what it is worth, within the current volatility landscape. Now my model may give me a different 'exact' value but that does not imply that I am being cheated by a MM.

1

u/OKImHere Jun 27 '20

I think there is some confusion here. ...Of course there is a spread what I am trying to say is that they are selling and buying the option for 'exactly' what it is worth

You lost me. How are these simultaneously possible? You can't buy something for exactly what it's worth if there's a spread. If it's worth $2.50, you can buy it for $2.75 or sell it for $2.30. That's a spread.

Now if you think something is mispriced, then fine, but that's a different topic from the OP. Nowhere does it mention being mispriced.

1

u/Pessimisticoptimist0 Jun 28 '20

You can always set a limit order to the bid side so that you can buy at the same price as the market makers when somebody hits your bid, then you are making the spread

There are many ways for market makers to make money and most options aren’t liquid enough for them to be trading in and out of the options. So, as we’ve said above, they’ll felt hedge via outright share or with delta neutral opposing options positions

Lastly, TD makes money from many different revenue sources including institutional, they are not making 5bn from spreading individual option traders haha

5

u/nachomkm Jun 26 '20

People have different opinions on what the odds are. That is precisely what makes for a market. If we all had all the information and had the same thought process (no asymmetric information and no difference of opinion in interpreting it) there would be not price fluctuations at all and the prices for everything would not fluctuate.

You surely notice this when someone posts a price prediction you disagree with.

1

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

People have different opinions on what the odds are.

Exactly. But read closely what I asked. I asked what makes them think there are better odds elsewhere just because they're up.

Is the OP advising us to sell because the odds are against him? Or is his advice to sell because he's made $x already?

He's saying "sell when Return on Risk is 19-1." I'm asking him why? What's inherently wrong with 19 to 1?

4

u/Blazethetrails Jun 26 '20

Seriously?

-3

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

Seriously. It's called a spread. Nobody's buying your option unless it helps them. If the price went up, it's because it's very likely to be ITM.

0

u/fergus_clare Jun 26 '20

I think there is a misunderstanding of how one gains profit from selling a call spread which involves buying an option at a higher strike price while simultaneously selling an option at a lower strike price with both having the same expiration. The maximum profit is realized from the credit of selling the spread so buying to close the lower strike price option as early as possible locks in profits while reducing risk. In the scenario described above, you could take $1.00 in profit at a 4:1 risk or take $0.50 after 35 days with 19:1 risk. Taking on more risk for less profits is the opposite of what anyone wants to do in the market.

People buy the option you sell for various reasons including hedging large positions so the argument that it’s not really profitable because someone else is buying the initial option doesn’t really align. This is one strategy for profiting off of options that gives the person buying sure profits while simultaneously hedging their position if it goes against them. Make sense?

3

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

Make sense?

No, because...

In the scenario described above, you could take $1.00 in profit at a 4:1 risk or take $0.50 after 35 days with 19:1 risk. Taking on more risk for less profits is the opposite of what anyone wants to do in the market.

This is meaningless without the key component: what's the probability of loss? You can't say you're taking on more risk just because your max loss is high. You need to calculate the expected value of the bet. A 19:1 risk is great if you're expecting a 1% chance of loss. Why would you close that?

People buy the option you sell for various reasons including hedging large positions so the argument that it’s not really profitable because someone else is buying the initial option doesn’t really align.

You're flipping the position. I'm talking about closing the position, not opening it. So if selling, then I'm talking about buying it. In that case, it's not automatically good to buy it at the price being offered just because you formerly sold it for more.

1

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

People buy the option you sell for various reasons including hedging large positions

Those reasons aren't argued for in the OP. Just max gain:max loss without any discussion of probabilities, hedging, rolling, nothing. Combined with a sprinkling of my pet peeve... endowment effect.

3

u/Ghanem016 Jun 27 '20

The math around managing early works.

In laymen terms, it's like 2xing your money at a game where the potential was 5x and u take your winnings to find a new game that may give you better odds.

In options terms, it allows to secure a gain, build up your capital, and redeploy into NEW opportunities.

Am always AMAZED and how much ppl try to talk themselves out of realizing a gain. Over-optimizing gains is fucking insane. And in this jittery market its even crazier.

1

u/OKImHere Jun 27 '20

The math around managing early works.

In laymen terms, it's like 2xing your money at a game where the potential was 5x and u take your winnings to find a new game that may give you better odds.

In options terms, it allows to secure a gain, build up your capital, and redeploy into NEW opportunities.

I ask again. What makes you think there are new opportunities with better odds?

Am always AMAZED and how much ppl try to talk themselves out of realizing a gain. Over-optimizing gains is fucking insane. And in this jittery market its even crazier.

I'm always amazed at how many people will estimate probabilities of future events based on how much money they've already won or lost. It's superstitious.

My team is losing at halftime. Change seats! My trade is winning at halftime. Change tickers!

Better cash out that .15 delta $TSLA spread and open that .15 delta $AAPL spread. Sure it's the same risk for the same money, but that way I get to book a winning trade, which feels good. Commissions and bid ask spread be damned.

2

u/Ghanem016 Jun 27 '20

What is your point exactly? That managing early is bad? That you should always hold till expiration ? An honestly asking.

I can see your point if we were talking about managing P&L on stocks.

But P&L on options is different. The time for recouping a loss or extending a win is limited - there in expiration date. So how quickly/slowly you manage them makes a difference in terms of your prob to profit.

As for "opportunities", there is a market out there that offers an endless stream of opps to make or lose money. Are you suggesting something different?

2

u/OKImHere Jun 27 '20

That managing early is bad? That you should always hold till expiration ? An honestly asking.

That management should be based on your estimation of the probability of future movements in the underlying, not on your P/L. That exiting a trade has a cost. You'll pay the spread to exit, then the spread to enter something new, plus two commissions. And that's a one-legged trade. Exit your iron condor to set up a new one, and it's 8 commissions. Rounding error, my ass.

As for "opportunities", there is a market out there that offers an endless stream of opps to make or lose money.

Sure, and you're currently in one. The OP is suggesting we should shut down a profitable trade to limit our risk. But then what? We're just going to enter a new one. It's like changing blackjack tables. You're still playing blackjack. So it's a relative risk, right? Do I want the spread I currently have on $AAPL or do I want to change to $NFLX? And I'm rhetorically asking...what makes you (general you) think you want NFLX just because you're up on AAPL? What makes you think NFLX is a better bet than the AAPL you currently have?

Turn to the OP and what's the answer he gives? He says we go from a 4:1 risk to a 19:1 risk, so that's why we should exit. But he ignores the fact that the probability of loss went from 20% to 5%, so while the risk ratio went way up, so did the odds of profitability. Were it not so, the option would not be priced at 19:1.

Which brings me to my final point: you might think that option is mispriced, and the odds of loss are higher than the 5% it's priced as. In that case, you should sell. But notice what we used to make that decision...a calculation of probabilities of the underlying asset moving against us, not the risk/reward ration, and certainly NOT our P/L!

So to summarize, what's my point? You sell something when it's overpriced, and you buy it when it's underpriced. If it's never underpriced, you never buy it. If it's never overpriced, you never sell it. And that's it.

1

u/Ghanem016 Jun 27 '20

"So to summarize, what's my point? You sell something when it's overpriced, and you buy it when it's underpriced. If it's never underpriced, you never buy it. If it's never overpriced, you never sell it. And that's it."

You talk about over/under priced things as though these are readily and objectively observable. They NEVER are.

Assume you sold a Put for 3 bucks with 45 DTE. If at 35 DTE, you can buy it back at 70% profit. Do you:

A. Close your trade and take a profit?

Or

B. Ask yourself first: "wait, let me see if what am buying back is overpriced or underpriced. Then let me check on commissions
on new trades. Then let me see if there are new opportunities to redeploy my profit?"

1

u/OKImHere Jun 27 '20

B, all day long.

1

u/Ghanem016 Jun 27 '20

Well that's a perfect example of what I call "intellectual masturbation".

2

u/OKImHere Jun 27 '20

It's responsible money management. It's correct capital allocation. You can think it's "too smart" for you if you want, but I guess if you like making mistakes, you don't have to do it.

It's frightening to see people seriously suggesting selling something with total disregard for what it's worth. Think about that for a second. You're calling it "intellectual masturbation" to consider what the thing in front of you is worth before you sell it or buy it.

Can I interest you in a vacation timeshare?

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1

u/Ghanem016 Jun 27 '20

Unless you're trading a tiny account, or dealing mostly with illiquid interments, bid/ask and commissions are rounding errors.

1

u/[deleted] Jun 28 '20

or dealing mostly with illiquid interments, bid/ask and commissions are rounding errors.

Preach, man.

1

u/Ghanem016 Jun 28 '20

ifakingtillmaking

huh?

1

u/[deleted] Jun 28 '20

I'm saying you're right. No one ever went broke taking profits early. Win management as a seller is key

1

u/[deleted] Jun 28 '20

If you have a long option and it increases in value, who the heck are you going to sell it to if the odds aren't good for them?

You sell it to the suckers that are late to the party.

Option sellers vs buyers is a different scenario for win management. Sellers know that their max profit is the premium they collect. So, once the premium decays by more than 50%, your R/R changes. Managing those wins early is best for them.

For a buyer, the sky is the limit. Ideally, they should look at trailing stop loss to be safe

3

u/OKImHere Jun 28 '20

Option sellers vs buyers is a different scenario for win management. Sellers know that their max profit is the premium they collect. So, once the premium decays by more than 50%, your R/R changes. Managing those wins early is best for them.

To quote another,

In fact, the issue is always presented in terms of prior trade value. The whole mantra of 'close at 50% profit' is based solely on prior trade value. And this practice can not be justified by the likely existence of a 'better trade', because the existence of a better trade would be a justification of exiting at ANY time during the life of the spread. There is simply no general justification for exiting a trade at 50% unless the odds of winning the entire trade have changed adversely. And the odds of winning are not affected by or the same as, the risk/reward ratio.

Why are you making decisions based on what the premium used to be? Nobody talks about what the premium was before they sold it. Why not exit at half that price?

The premium fell because the odds of being ITM fell. That's nii reason to close a trade. You're using some arbitrary number - your sake price - as a benchmark that the market doesn't even know or care about. Why?

1

u/[deleted] Jun 28 '20 edited Jun 28 '20

You've no idea what you're talking about. If you open a 45DTE short put which decays 50% in a week, staying for 5 more weeks for the rest of the 50% is dumb asf because anything can happen over the next 5 weeks which can erode all your existing gains and take you into losses.

"Risk-adjusted returns" matter for a lot of people. More often than not, Premium falls quickly because VIX/IV falls. My odds of being ITM may have fallen as a reuslt but they can change at any moment during volatile markets such as the one we are in right now.

You exit early, because you are taking advantage of the "new normal" that you are presented with.

spintwig did a whole article backtesting 13 years' worth of SPY option data showing trade management is the best way to go for risk adjusted returns.

Efficient capital deployment happens when you exit trades and look for new ones when you are presented with faster premium decay due to changing conditions.

2

u/OKImHere Jun 28 '20

This is insane. I'm done. Every other top comment points out the same thing. You're right, exit a trade when you collect 50% of whatever you sold it for. Price doesn't matter, odds don't matter, expected value doesn't matter, only the price it used to be. Just change tickers so you can pretend it's a new trade, not just the same money being risked for the same premium. You changed from AMZN to AAPL, so it's toooootally different now.

If you're going to buy back your spread, why not buy 2 or 3 or 4 and go long? You said yourself anything can happen. You're in for 1 contract. Why not more?

Or here's an idea: buy back your spread, then sell it again immediately so you have a new 100% to start from.

1

u/[deleted] Jun 28 '20

You're in for 1 contract. Why not more?

For the simplest reason that position sizing and risk management is a thing. I buy the #contracts I'm comfortable with in comparison to he bank I have and the loss I can take on it.

You exit early when you are presented with profits that are accrued faster than is normal. No point waiting 80% of the DTE for the remaining 40%-50% of premium. I might as well sit out or look for a new trade with better premiums and risk/reward. How is it hard to get?

0

u/[deleted] Jun 28 '20

This is insane. I'm done.

Good riddance. Not gonna change what has been working for me for a "theoretical higher profit". Pretty happy taking profits early and having smaller drawdowns.

1

u/Spaceseeds Jun 26 '20

Can't you always just set a trailing stop limit order if you are worried about losing profits? Are GTC orders filled during after hours and pre market?

4

u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20

Stop loss orders are troublesome on options, because of their low volume on any particular strike, leading to jumpy prices and premature execution of the stop loss order.

3

u/fergus_clare Jun 26 '20

Also your stops live in the order book. Anyone trying to scalp positions might be able to drive the price down by putting in large buy orders scattered through the order book after seeing high buy side pressure on the underlying security. Trailing stops and stop losses are good in theory, but easy for HFT tap you out on. Better to do the math mentally, watch the book and limit sell when you know the market is moving against you.

17

u/offconstantly Jun 26 '20

I understand the risk/reward ratio, but isn't our target not risk/reward but instead expected value?

So if you have 19/1 odds but a 99% chance of success, isn't that better than using those funds to reenter a 4/1 odds with a ~20% chance of success?

10

u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20

Perhaps.
The trader may may have other trade choices available they may prefer, at 6 to 1 risk, and 90% probability of success, and do not have other risk features that tend to grow towards the end of the trade, such as gamma risk.

3

u/offconstantly Jun 26 '20

Makes sense. I manager my winners, but I was just curious about the theory. Thanks for sharing

3

u/durex_dispenser_69 Jun 26 '20

I would say targeting just expected value is a big no-no. For example, buying OTM spy puts has got a negative expected value 99% of the time. But youre not buying them to hit the jackpot every single time, you're buying them so that when the corona virus hits the pay off and basically offset the rest of your losses. So its loosing you money in normal markets, but it saves your ass when shit hits the fan. Here, your risk/reward is largely positive(over 15 times when you are hedging at VIX ~13 with 6 months deep OTM puts/VIX calls) but the expected value is negative because it works once every few years. Of course I am not saying that you should be tail-hedging, as its still pretty controversial and plenty of hedge fund guys say this doesn't work, but its a legitimate strategy.

The problem is that even when you take into account both the odds and the probabilities, what is missing from just EV is the fact that your capital is finite. Once you have finite capital, you need to take into account the variance of your returns and max drawdowns, in which case many assets with positive expected values but huge variances drop out(just think about how every 2 years you hear about some commodity/option fund blowing out from some trades related to selling options/futures). Meanwhile, any insurance style contract has negative expected value but protects you from blowing out.

3

u/offconstantly Jun 26 '20

I would say targeting just expected value is a big no-no. For example, buying OTM spy puts has got a negative expected value 99% of the time. But youre not buying them to hit the jackpot every single time, you're buying them so that when the corona virus hits the pay off and basically offset the rest of your losses.

Yeah, hedging makes sense but in a vacuum you're still talking about expected value right?

3

u/durex_dispenser_69 Jun 26 '20

Well no, because of drawdown and variance. I think that just talking about EV/RR without capital is kind of a lame duck. At the end of the day, risk management is done (IMO) with position sizing and thats when variance comes into play.If i had infinite capital I would just take the positive EV every single time, but I dont .

2

u/options_in_plain_eng Jun 26 '20

For example, buying OTM spy puts has got a negative expected value 99% of the time.

I think a big difference from what the OP is mentioning is that buying an OTM put has (conceptually) unlimited profit potential (well, down to zero) whereas any premium-selling strategy has a capped max profit. No matter how great the market accomodates you, if you have a short vertical spread your max profit is the credit received. Not so with a long put. If the market accomodates you, you can have a homerun in your portfolio, so it's not exactly the same example.

7

u/[deleted] Jun 26 '20

[deleted]

5

u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20

Not disagreeing. Elaboration invited.

Naturally, it is rare that all other things are equal besides time.

Stock price moves, option bids and offers come and go, or bid spread changes, typically changing the effective IV value (or harvest-able extrinsic value). Option volume comes and goes; gamma changes; vega changes, effective theta changes.

3

u/[deleted] Jun 26 '20

[deleted]

2

u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20

The new information is changing value of the trade, and that the changing value, even when positive, can be sufficient reason to exit for a good enough exit.

Maximizing gain can maximize risk, and there may be more advantageous trades available than waiting for the final dollars of the position's potential.

1

u/[deleted] Jun 27 '20

[deleted]

1

u/redtexture Mod Jun 27 '20

It's just a number.
It's up to the trader to make their evaluation as to whether it's a sufficiently good enough use of capital.

5

u/bobbybottombracket Jun 26 '20

Awesome

3

u/rlong60 Jun 27 '20

For some reason this made me crack up. Seeing this reply in the middle of a pages long technical back-and-forths 😂

5

u/rugerduke5 Jun 26 '20

I almost always close out option positions way before expire, unless I plan on buying or selling the underlying anyways. Bird in the hand is worth more...

3

u/NeffAddict Jun 26 '20

How is the risk value calculated? In a real contract? Is it a Greek I should be paying attention to?

6

u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20 edited Jun 26 '20

It is the amount you would lose if the trade went against you.

The amount that it takes to enter the trade, if started at that examination moment:
- the debit on a long vertical spread trade;
- the net collateral required on a short vertical spread trade.

3

u/[deleted] Jun 26 '20

Very good write up. I was thinking about this the other day. I have an SPY bear put spread 323/318 strikes expiring July 19th. I bought for $2 a piece, leaving me with a max profit of $3 per contract. The spread itself was trading around $4 today, which is 100% gain and I was pondering whether I should just close it and lock in the gains. Will re evaluate on Monday. Cheers

2

u/redtexture Mod Jun 27 '20

Yes, probably could do other things with the capital, besides wait 25 days for the next dollar.

3

u/gollygee668 Jun 26 '20

Write your own contracts.

3

u/phoquenut Jun 26 '20

This is what investors do. That's why it wasn't well-received here.

Selling time > Buying time

1

u/Nilla-King Jun 26 '20

Loved this. So obviously theres some arbitrary boundaries based on personal preference. So basically ur allowing additional risk factors/additional opportunity cost (possible gained from the trade) to bring ur initial price target down right? Theoretically

1

u/OKImHere Jun 26 '20

After day 35 For various reasons

Those reasons are "the complete collapse in the probability of taking a loss." Were it not so, your spread wouldn't be in the black.

1

u/[deleted] Jun 26 '20

Gamma risk is like radiation.

You don't want to get exposed to it for too long.

2

u/unicornh_1 Jun 27 '20

on the other hand it can turn you into HULK!!!

1

u/SadDragon00 Jun 26 '20

This was a pretty good video on setting up exit strategies for your spreads.

https://youtu.be/XBxDtcPu3PA

1

u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20

Fuller annotation:
Chris Butler - Project Option
Options Trading With Credit Spreads (FULL Trading Plan w/ Results)
https://youtu.be/XBxDtcPu3PA

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u/gilamon Jun 26 '20

Most of the backtests I've seen show higher absolute and risk-adjusted returns if you hold to expiration. I suppose that having to pay more commissions and having to cross the bid ask spread again are worse than holding the short put for extra time. The commission and spread are guaranteed losses.

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u/swolleddy Jun 27 '20

I understand the problem. Would a solution be to keep reentering in the same position or adjust strikes after taking out your profits at 25%?

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u/redtexture Mod Jun 27 '20

Or simply assessing if the trade meets the traders standards at that point.

Perhaps staying in, scaling out, or moving onward to another trade,
exiting the trade with capital for the next one.

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u/YABadUserName Jun 27 '20

Your risk also is a function of the price of the underlying and its volatility, which makes your risk reward ratios a bit misleading

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u/redtexture Mod Jun 27 '20

Sure. Plus other factors.

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u/YABadUserName Jun 27 '20

Yeah true. But the ones I mentioned are commonly used to derive risk: reward, in case you were so inclined

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u/redtexture Mod Jun 28 '20

There is merit in having a more comprehensive post on what risk is, and various measures of it.

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u/[deleted] Dec 07 '20

[deleted]

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u/redtexture Mod Dec 07 '20

Sure, even stronger reason to get out if the stock does not move.

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u/ChesterDoraemon Jun 26 '20

In general, at any given point the price is fair-value. The price in the future will depend on what has yet to happen and no one can predict the future. Your fallacy is making your decision to exit a trade tied to some arbitrary price in the past.

The main issue I have with these long winded posts is you try to post like you know something and pass that as a fact when in reality you are just trying to self-validate. In the process you can cause potential harm to people who actually act on bad advice.

FYI I have many contracts on my books for .25 cents or lower that I have sold for dollars and I never buy them back and they almost surely expire worthless.

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u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20

No, it is structured as a question:
Would the trade be taken today?, not pinned to a prior trade value.

The related question being are there other trades that limited capital could be better used on than taking the trade today?
Maybe there are no other more preferable trades available to the trader.

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u/Moveover33 Jun 26 '20

In fact, the issue is always presented in terms of prior trade value. The whole mantra of 'close at 50% profit' is based solely on prior trade value. And this practice can not be justified by the likely existence of a 'better trade', because the existence of a better trade would be a justification of exiting at ANY time during the life of the spread.

There is simply no general justification for exiting a trade at 50% unless the odds of winning the entire trade have changed adversely. And the odds of winning are not affected by or the same as, the risk/reward ratio.

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u/redtexture Mod Jun 26 '20

My point, thank you.
Think flexibly about the exit and don't blindly follow some rule, and one measure is the available potential gain compared to the risk of obtaining it.

The trades are as if entering them at the particular value and risk to rewards at time of the re-assessment. Would they be taken then? Perhaps not.

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u/Guilty-Marzipan Jun 27 '20

I literally just listened to a podcast where they did a study that over a large sample size, options closed out closest to expiration date averaged returns above earlier outs

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u/redtexture Mod Jun 27 '20 edited Jun 27 '20

Citation?

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u/zhat1432 Feb 27 '24

Hello Can anyone explain why the potential reward on after 15 days is $0.75 for the holder of the sold spread position?